Topics: Organic + Physical + Inorganic Chemistry
Total Questions: 50
Type: Single Correct MCQ
Difficulty: JEE Main Tough
Time: 60 Minutes

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SECTION A — ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Q1.

Which compound has the highest acidic strength?

A) Phenol
B) p-Cresol
C) p-Nitrophenol
D) p-Methoxyphenol

Q2.

The correct decreasing order of electron-releasing tendency of the following groups through the +I effect is:

A) –CH₃ > –C₂H₅ > –i-C₃H₇ > –t-C₄H₉
B) –t-C₄H₉ > –i-C₃H₇ > –C₂H₅ > –CH₃
C) –C₂H₅ > –CH₃ > –t-C₄H₉ > –i-C₃H₇
D) –i-C₃H₇ > –t-C₄H₉ > –C₂H₅ > –CH₃

Q3.

Gattermann–Koch formylation of benzene requires:

A) CO + HCl / AlCl₃
B) CO + HCl / AlCl₃, CuCl
C) CO₂ + HCl / AlCl₃
D) CH₃Cl / AlCl₃

Q4.

Phenol on treatment with CHCl₃/NaOH followed by acidification gives predominantly:

A) Benzaldehyde
B) Salicylaldehyde
C) Benzoic acid
D) Salicylic acid

Q5.

Phenol treated with CO₂/NaOH under suitable conditions followed by acidification gives:

A) Benzaldehyde
B) Salicylic acid
C) Benzoic acid
D) Picric acid

Q6.

A secondary amine reacts with HNO₂ to form:

A) Alcohol + N₂
B) N-nitrosoamine
C) Diazonium salt
D) Alkene

Q7.

A tertiary aliphatic amine on treatment with HNO₂ generally forms:

A) N-nitrosoamine
B) Diazonium salt
C) Ammonium nitrite salt
D) Alcohol

Q8.

The correct order of dipole moment is:

A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
B) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
D) HF > HBr > HCl > HI

Q9.

Which pair represents structural isomers?

A) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
B) n-butane and isobutane
C) D-glucose and L-glucose
D) cis-2-butene and 2-methylpropene

Q10.

Which compound can exhibit E/Z isomerism?

A) Propene
B) 2-methylpropene
C) But-2-ene
D) 2-methylbut-2-ene

Q11.

The most stable conformation of n-butane is:

A) Fully eclipsed
B) Gauche
C) Anti staggered
D) Partially eclipsed

Q12.

Ozonolysis of 2-methylpropene followed by Zn/H₂O gives:

A) Methanal + propanone
B) Methanal + ethanal
C) Ethanal + propanone
D) Two molecules of ethanal

Q13.

Which reaction proceeds predominantly through an SN2 mechanism?

A) tert-Butyl bromide + OH⁻
B) Methyl bromide + OH⁻
C) tert-Butyl chloride + H₂O
D) Benzyl alcohol + H₂O

Q14.

The rate of an SN1 reaction depends upon:

A) Substrate only
B) Nucleophile only
C) Both substrate and nucleophile
D) Solvent only

Q15.

Acid chloride reacts with water to form:

A) Ester
B) Aldehyde
C) Carboxylic acid
D) Amide

Q16.

Hydration of a terminal alkyne in the presence of HgSO₄/H₂SO₄ gives initially an enol which undergoes:

A) Aldol condensation
B) Keto-enol tautomerism
C) Cannizzaro reaction
D) Polymerisation

Q17.

Addition of HBr to propene in the presence of peroxide gives predominantly:

A) 2-Bromopropane
B) 1-Bromopropane
C) 1,2-Dibromopropane
D) Propanol

Q18.

Which reagent reduces aldehydes/ketones to hydrocarbons under strongly basic conditions?

A) NaBH₄
B) LiAlH₄
C) Zn(Hg)/HCl
D) PCC

Q19.

Wolff–Kishner reduction uses:

A) Zn(Hg)/HCl
B) NH₂NH₂/KOH, heat
C) NaBH₄
D) H₂/Ni

Q20.

A nitrile reacts with excess Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis to give:

A) Primary alcohol
B) Secondary alcohol
C) Ketone
D) Tertiary amine

Q21.

Baeyer’s reagent is:

A) Acidified KMnO₄
B) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
C) Br₂/CCl₄
D) Ammoniacal AgNO₃

Q22.

Which compound gives a positive ammoniacal AgNO₃ test?

A) Ethene
B) Ethyne
C) Propene
D) Benzene

Q23.

Cold dilute KMnO₄ reacts with an alkene mainly to produce:

A) Alkane
B) Vicinal diol
C) Aldehyde only
D) Ketone only

Q24.

Which compound can undergo Cannizzaro reaction?

A) CH₃CHO
B) C₂H₅CHO
C) HCHO
D) CH₃COCH₃

Q25.

Which pair can undergo aldol condensation?

A) Benzaldehyde + benzaldehyde
B) Formaldehyde + formaldehyde
C) Acetaldehyde + acetaldehyde
D) Benzaldehyde + formaldehyde

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SECTION B — PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Q26.

The equivalent weight of H₂SO₄ in an acid-base reaction involving complete neutralisation is:

A) 98
B) 49
C) 24.5
D) 196

Q27.

A solution contains 0.2 equivalent of solute in 500 mL solution. Its normality is:

A) 0.1 N
B) 0.2 N
C) 0.4 N
D) 2.5 N

Q28.

For a hydrogen-like species, the energy of an electron in the nth orbit is proportional to:

A) n²
B) 1/n
C) –1/n²
D) –n²

Q29.

For a hydrogen atom, the energy gap between n = 1 and n = 2 is:

A) Greater than that between n = 2 and n = 3
B) Equal to that between n = 2 and n = 3
C) Less than that between n = 2 and n = 3
D) Zero

Q30.

For a first-order reaction, the time required for 100% completion is:

A) t₁/₂
B) 2t₁/₂
C) Finite
D) Infinite

Q31.

For a zero-order reaction, if initial concentration is [A]₀, the time for complete consumption is:

A) [A]₀/k
B) k/[A]₀
C) 0.693/k
D) ∞

Q32.

For an ideal gas undergoing reversible isothermal expansion:

A) w = 0
B) Work is maximum
C) Work is minimum
D) ΔU > 0

Q33.

Compared with irreversible expansion against constant external pressure between the same initial and final states, reversible expansion gives:

A) Less work by gas
B) More work by gas
C) Same work
D) Zero work

Q34.

At constant pressure, heat supplied to a system is equal to:

A) ΔU
B) ΔH
C) ΔS
D) ΔG

Q35.

At constant volume, heat supplied to a system is equal to:

A) ΔH
B) ΔU
C) ΔG
D) ΔS

Q36.

For a reaction, ΔH = –100 kJ mol⁻¹ and Δn(g) = –2. At 300 K, approximately:$$\Delta H-\Delta U = \Delta n_gRT$$

Therefore ΔU is:

A) –95.0 kJ mol⁻¹
B) –100 kJ mol⁻¹
C) –105.0 kJ mol⁻¹
D) +105 kJ mol⁻¹

Q37.

The heat capacity of a body is 400 J K⁻¹ and its mass is 200 g. Its specific heat capacity is:

A) 0.5 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹
B) 2 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹
C) 200 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹
D) 800 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹

Q38.

For an exothermic reaction:

A) ΔH > 0
B) ΔH < 0
C) ΔH = 0 always
D) ΔS must be negative

Q39.

Hess’s law is based on the fact that enthalpy is a:

A) Path function
B) State function
C) Intensive property only
D) Rate-dependent property

Q40.

For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure:

A) ΔG > 0
B) ΔG = 0 always
C) ΔG < 0
D) ΔH must be positive

Q41.

Entropy generally increases when:

A) Gas → liquid
B) Liquid → solid
C) Solid → gas
D) Gas → solid

Q42.

If Ksp of AgCl is 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁰, its solubility in pure water is approximately:

A) 10⁻⁵ M
B) 10⁻¹⁰ M
C) 10⁻² M
D) 10⁻¹⁵ M

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SECTION C — INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Q43.

The correct spectrochemical series is:

A) I⁻ < Br⁻ < Cl⁻ < F⁻ < H₂O < NH₃ < CN⁻
B) CN⁻ < NH₃ < H₂O < F⁻ < Cl⁻ < Br⁻ < I⁻
C) F⁻ < I⁻ < Br⁻ < Cl⁻ < H₂O < CN⁻ < NH₃
D) NH₃ < H₂O < F⁻ < Cl⁻ < Br⁻ < I⁻ < CN⁻

Q44.

The molecule CO according to MOT has:

A) Bond order 1
B) Bond order 2
C) Bond order 3
D) Bond order 0

Q45.

Which species is paramagnetic?

A) N₂
B) O₂
C) F₂
D) Ne₂

Q46.

The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO₄ is:

A) +2
B) +4
C) +6
D) +7

Q47.

A reaction in which the same element is simultaneously oxidised and reduced is called:

A) Displacement
B) Comproportionation
C) Disproportionation
D) Neutralisation

Q48.

In a comproportionation reaction:

A) Same oxidation state gives two different oxidation states
B) Two different oxidation states combine to give an intermediate oxidation state
C) Only oxidation occurs
D) Only reduction occurs

Q49.

During electrolysis of molten NaCl, the product at the cathode is:

A) Cl₂
B) NaOH
C) Na
D) H₂

Q50.

During electrolysis of aqueous CuSO₄ using inert electrodes, the cathode reaction is predominantly:

A) 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻
B) Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu
C) SO₄²⁻ → SO₂
D) H₂O → H₂

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ANSWER KEY

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	C	14	A	27	C	40	C
2	B	15	C	28	C	41	C
3	B	16	B	29	A	42	A
4	B	17	B	30	D	43	A
5	B	18	C	31	A	44	C
6	B	19	B	32	B	45	B
7	C	20	C	33	B	46	D
8	A	21	B	34	B	47	C
9	B	22	B	35	B	48	B
10	C	23	B	36	C	49	C
11	C	24	C	37	B	50	B
12	A	25	C	38	B
13	B	26	B	39	B